Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

2. Which of the following symptoms would a healthcare provider expect to find in a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Muscle cramps.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct symptom to expect in a patient with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high potassium levels in the blood, can affect the electrical activity of the heart. Increased potassium levels can lead to changes in the heart's rhythm, potentially causing tachycardia (rapid heart rate) or other cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Hypertension (choice B) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia; in fact, high potassium levels can sometimes cause low blood pressure. Bradycardia (choice C), or a slow heart rate, is usually not a primary symptom of hyperkalemia; instead, hyperkalemia tends to be associated with faster heart rates or arrhythmias.

3. A client who has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) due to an aminoglycoside antibiotic has moved from the oliguric phase to the diuretic phase of AKI. Which parameters are most important for the nurse to plan to carefully monitor?

• A. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids.
• B. Uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces.
• C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• D. Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), monitoring for hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes is crucial. Hypovolemia can occur due to the increased urine output in this phase, potentially leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Electrolyte imbalances can result in ECG changes, such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful monitoring of fluid status and ECG findings helps in preventing complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most crucial parameters to monitor during the diuretic phase of AKI. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids, uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces, and elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important considerations in other phases of AKI or in other conditions, but they are not the primary focus during the diuretic phase when hypovolemia and ECG changes take precedence.

4. A client with partial thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Obtain supplies to re-dress the burn area.
• B. Verify the client's signed consent form.
• C. Give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent.
• D. Perform active range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before transporting the client for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area, the nurse should give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent. This intervention is essential to manage pain effectively during the debridement process. Obtaining supplies to re-dress the burn area (Choice A) is important but not as immediate as providing pain relief. Verifying the client's signed consent form (Choice B) is necessary for procedures but does not address the client's immediate pain needs. Performing active range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is not indicated before whirlpool therapy for debridement of burns and may cause further discomfort to the client.

5. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?

• A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
• B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
• D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.

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