Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?

• A. 10 units.
• B. 22 units.
• C. 32 units.
• D. 24 units.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dose would be 32 units, which is the sum of 10 units of regular insulin and 22 units of NPH. It is essential to combine the doses of both types of insulin to ensure the client administers the correct total dose. Choices A and B represent the individual doses of regular and NPH insulin, respectively, not the combined total. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the sum of both insulin doses.

2. The patient weighs 75 kg and is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 50 mL/hour, having consumed 100 mL orally in the past 24 hours. What action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the provider to ask about increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour.
• B. Discuss with the provider the need to increase the IV rate to 150 mL/hour.
• C. Encourage the patient to drink more water so the IV can be discontinued.
• D. Instruct the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The recommended daily fluid intake for adults is 30 to 40 mL/kg/day. For a patient weighing 75 kg, the minimum intake should be 2250 mL/day. The patient is currently receiving 1200 mL IV and 100 mL orally, totaling 1300 mL. Increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour would provide a total of 2160 mL, which could meet the patient's needs if oral intake continues. Option B suggests increasing the IV rate to 150 mL/hour, resulting in an excessive fluid intake of 3600 mL/day, surpassing the recommended amount. Option C, encouraging increased fluid intake, is not recommended as the patient is already struggling with fluid intake. Option D, instructing the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours, would still fall short of the required fluid intake of 2250 mL/day.

3. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering bronchodilators.
• B. Administering antibiotics.
• C. Administering IV fluids.
• D. Administering corticosteroids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

4. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?

• A. Decreased calcium levels
• B. Increased phosphorus levels
• C. No adventitious sounds in the lungs
• D. Increased edema in the legs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs is a key indicator that the client's fluid balance is stable. Adventitious sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are typically heard in conditions of fluid overload, indicating that the body is retaining excess fluid. Choices A and B, decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels, are common laboratory findings associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and are not directly related to fluid balance. Increased edema in the legs is a sign of fluid imbalance, suggesting fluid retention in the tissues, which would not indicate stable fluid balance in a client with CKD on fluid restrictions.

5. A client in a physician’s office has just made an appointment for an exercise stress test. The client should be instructed to:

• A. Wear sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt
• B. Eat a small meal just before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes such as sneakers
• D. Avoid consuming caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes, such as sneakers, for the exercise stress test. This choice ensures safety and stability during the procedure. Wearing sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt (Choice A) would not be appropriate as the client needs to wear light, loose, comfortable clothing. Eating a small meal just before the procedure (Choice B) could lead to discomfort during the test. Avoiding caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure (Choice D) is not a specific instruction related to the attire or preparation for the test.

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