HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client with functional urinary incontinence is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Clean around your catheter daily with soap and water.
- B. Wash the vaginal weights with a 10% bleach solution after each use.
- C. Informing about available operations to repair your bladder.
- D. Buy slacks with elastic waistbands that are easy to pull down.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Functional urinary incontinence is not related to bladder issues but rather to difficulties with ambulation or accessing the toilet. The goal is to help the client manage clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down facilitate timely access to the toilet. Choices A and B are unrelated and not applicable to functional urinary incontinence. Choice C is incorrect as surgeries to repair the bladder are not indicated for functional urinary incontinence.
2. A client tells the nurse that he has been experiencing frequent heartburn and has been 'living on antacids.' For which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize a risk?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. In this scenario, the client's frequent use of antacids containing alkaline components can lead to an excess of bicarbonate in the body, causing metabolic alkalosis. Oral antacids work by neutralizing stomach acid, potentially leading to an alkaline shift in the body's pH balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is not typically associated with antacid use. Respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system dysfunction rather than antacid ingestion.
3. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?
- A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
- B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
- C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
- D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.
4. After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration rate, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition?
- A. I must decrease my intake of fat.
- B. I will increase my intake of protein.
- C. A decreased intake of carbohydrates will be required.
- D. An increased intake of vitamin C is necessary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is significant renal loss of protein leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss should be matched by an increased intake of protein. Therefore, the correct statement indicating a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition is increasing protein intake. Decreasing fat, decreasing carbohydrates, or increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary for addressing the underlying issues associated with nephrotic syndrome.
5. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?
- A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
- B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
- C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
- D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.
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