HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client with functional urinary incontinence is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Clean around your catheter daily with soap and water.
- B. Wash the vaginal weights with a 10% bleach solution after each use.
- C. Informing about available operations to repair your bladder.
- D. Buy slacks with elastic waistbands that are easy to pull down.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Functional urinary incontinence is not related to bladder issues but rather to difficulties with ambulation or accessing the toilet. The goal is to help the client manage clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down facilitate timely access to the toilet. Choices A and B are unrelated and not applicable to functional urinary incontinence. Choice C is incorrect as surgeries to repair the bladder are not indicated for functional urinary incontinence.
2. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?
- A. Left ventricular atrophy.
- B. Irregular heartbeats.
- C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
- D. Pacemaker function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.
3. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
- A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
- B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
- C. Purulent sputum.
- D. Excessive hunger.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.
4. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Nocturia
- B. Flank pain
- C. Increased abdominal girth
- D. B & C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.
5. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
- B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
- C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
- D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.
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