Nursing Elites

1. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Administering oxygen.
• B. Administering nitroglycerin.
• C. Administering aspirin.
• D. Administering morphine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction to improve oxygenation. Oxygen helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, reducing the workload on the heart. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions in the treatment of MI; however, oxygen administration takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygenation. Morphine may be considered for pain relief, but it is not the initial priority in the treatment of a suspected MI.

3. A client with partial thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Obtain supplies to re-dress the burn area.
• B. Verify the client's signed consent form.
• C. Give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent.
• D. Perform active range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before transporting the client for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area, the nurse should give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent. This intervention is essential to manage pain effectively during the debridement process. Obtaining supplies to re-dress the burn area (Choice A) is important but not as immediate as providing pain relief. Verifying the client's signed consent form (Choice B) is necessary for procedures but does not address the client's immediate pain needs. Performing active range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is not indicated before whirlpool therapy for debridement of burns and may cause further discomfort to the client.

4. What is a priority goal for the diabetic client who is taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting from a viral illness or influenza?

• A. Ensuring adequate food intake.
• B. Managing personal health.
• C. Relieving pain.
• D. Increasing physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring adequate food intake is a priority goal for a diabetic client taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting due to a viral illness or influenza because maintaining proper nutrition is essential to prevent complications such as ketoacidosis. During illness, it is crucial for diabetic individuals to continue to consume appropriate amounts of food to maintain stable blood sugar levels and prevent hypoglycemia. Managing personal health (choice B) is important but not the priority in this situation. Relieving pain (choice C) may be necessary if present but is not the priority over ensuring food intake. Increasing physical activity (choice D) is not recommended during illness, especially when the individual is experiencing nausea and vomiting.

5. A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client?

• A. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus every 24 hours
• B. Taping the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system
• C. Adding 20 mL of sterile water to the suction control chamber every shift
• D. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber every 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed chest drainage system is to tape the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system. This is done to prevent accidental disconnection, ensuring the system functions properly. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus should be done more frequently than once every 24 hours to monitor for any air leaks. Adding sterile water to the suction control chamber is not necessary every shift; it should be done as needed to maintain the appropriate water level. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber should be done more frequently than every 24 hours, with hourly monitoring during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter to assess for changes or complications.

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