Nursing Elites

1. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and methods to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client cannot modify?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Age
• C. Exercise level
• D. Dietary preferences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis because it is a natural part of the aging process. While lifestyle factors such as diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can be modified to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, age cannot be altered. Therefore, age is the correct answer. Diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can all be improved or managed through interventions and lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk of atherosclerosis.

2. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?

• A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
• B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
• C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
• D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.

4. A client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls needs a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. What should the nurse complete first?

• A. Obtain urine sample for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
• C. Encourage protein intake and additional fluids.
• D. Consult physical therapy for gait training.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to obtain a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. Older adults with recent falls may have atypical symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present as new-onset confusion or falling. It is crucial to rule out UTI before initiating antibiotics. While administering antibiotics, encouraging protein intake, fluids, and consulting physical therapy are important interventions, they should follow the urine sample collection to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

5. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

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