Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Heart rate
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

2. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

3. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
• B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
• C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.

4. A client has just had a central line catheter placed that is specific for hemodialysis. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Use the catheter for the next laboratory blood draw.
• B. Monitor the central venous pressure through this line.
• C. Access the line for the next intravenous medication.
• D. Place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse after a central line catheter placement for hemodialysis is to place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis treatment. This helps prevent clot formation in the line and maintain patency for future use. Using the catheter for blood draws is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection. Monitoring central venous pressure is not indicated with this type of catheter. Accessing the line for medications is also not recommended to prevent complications and ensure the line is solely used for hemodialysis purposes.

5. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?

• A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
• B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
• C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
• D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.

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