which of the following is the most important assessment for a patient receiving iv potassium
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Exam

1. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

2. Blood is drawn from a client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range for uric acid is 4.5 to 8 mg/dL for males and 2.5 to 6.2 mg/dL for females. A uric acid level of 5.8 mg/dL falls within the normal range. Choices A, C, and D are outside the normal reference range, making them incorrect. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the typical uric acid levels in the blood.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.

4. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay the development of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal failure. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in clients with diabetes mellitus to help reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy by improving renal blood flow. This medication class can help prevent or delay the development of renal failure in these clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct impact on preventing or delaying the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic cancer, or cerebrovascular accidents in clients with diabetes mellitus.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

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