Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Heart rate
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

2. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?

• A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
• B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
• C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
• D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.

3. A young adult client, admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells). The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all the PRBCs have been transfused?

• A. 0.19
• B. 0.09
• C. 0.39
• D. 0.29

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The expected increase in hematocrit after transfusion is approximately 3% per unit of PRBCs. Since the client received 4 units, the expected increase would be 4 x 3% = 12%. Therefore, adding this to the pretransfusion hematocrit of 17% would result in an expected post-transfusion hematocrit of 29%. Choice A (0.19) is incorrect as it doesn't consider the incremental increase per unit of PRBCs. Choices B (0.09) and C (0.39) are also incorrect as they do not align with the expected increase in hematocrit following the transfusion of 4 units of PRBCs.

4. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?

• A. Decreased calcium levels
• B. Increased phosphorus levels
• C. No adventitious sounds in the lungs
• D. Increased edema in the legs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs is a key indicator that the client's fluid balance is stable. Adventitious sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are typically heard in conditions of fluid overload, indicating that the body is retaining excess fluid. Choices A and B, decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels, are common laboratory findings associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and are not directly related to fluid balance. Increased edema in the legs is a sign of fluid imbalance, suggesting fluid retention in the tissues, which would not indicate stable fluid balance in a client with CKD on fluid restrictions.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

Similar Questions