Nursing Elites

1. A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states, 'I have not urinated very much in the last few days.' The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority?

• A. Give the client a bottle of water immediately.
• B. Start an intravenous line for fluids.
• C. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily.
• D. Perform an electrocardiogram.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to give the client a bottle of water immediately. The athlete's symptoms of decreased urination, along with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and low blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg, indicate mild dehydration. Rehydration should begin promptly to address the dehydration. Teaching the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily is a good long-term strategy but not the immediate priority. Starting an intravenous line for fluids may be necessary if oral hydration is insufficient or if the degree of dehydration is severe. Performing an electrocardiogram is not indicated at this time as the priority is addressing the dehydration.

2. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Pacemaker insertion
• C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• D. Chronic airway limitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.

3. A young adult asks the nurse about the normal cholesterol level. The nurse tells the client that the total cholesterol level should be maintained at less than:

• A. 140 mg/dL
• B. 200 mg/dL
• C. 250 mg/dL
• D. 300 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 200 mg/dL. A normal cholesterol value ranges between 140 and 199 mg/dL. Total cholesterol levels should ideally be maintained at 200 mg/dL or less to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended normal range for total cholesterol levels and may increase the risk of developing heart-related issues.

4. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is ordered to receive PO trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) 160/800 QID to treat a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. The nurse will contact the provider to clarify the correct

• A. dose.
• B. drug.
• C. frequency.
• D. route.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'frequency.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is typically prescribed to be taken twice daily, not four times a day (QID). The dose, drug, and route are already specified in the order, so the nurse should contact the provider to clarify the frequency of administration to ensure optimal treatment for the urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Choosing 'dose' is incorrect because the dose of 160/800 is already provided in the order. 'Drug' is incorrect because the medication Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is explicitly stated in the prescription. 'Route' is incorrect as PO (by mouth) is also clearly indicated in the prescription.

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