Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common sign of meningitis?

• A. Joint pain.
• B. Severe headache.
• C. Stiff neck.
• D. Coughing up blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A stiff neck is a common sign of meningitis due to inflammation of the meninges. Meningitis typically presents with symptoms such as fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a stiff neck. Joint pain (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of meningitis and is more commonly associated with other conditions. While severe headache (Choice B) can be a symptom of meningitis, it is not as specific as a stiff neck. Coughing up blood (Choice D) is not a typical sign of meningitis and may indicate other respiratory or cardiovascular issues.

2. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?

• A. Frequent urinary tract infections.
• B. Inability to get pregnant.
• C. Premenstrual syndrome.
• D. Chronic use of laxatives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Inability to get pregnant.' The symptoms described in the client's complaints, which include severe abdominal pain before menstruation, painful intercourse, and painful defecation, are indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, commonly leading to infertility. While choices A, C, and D may be associated with other conditions, they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client, making them incorrect choices. Frequent urinary tract infections may suggest a different issue, premenstrual syndrome does not typically present with severe abdominal pain, and chronic use of laxatives is not a typical symptom of endometriosis.

3. A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child’s dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?

• A. 5 mL PO BID
• B. 5 mL PO daily
• C. 10 mL PO BID
• D. 10 mL PO daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: '5 mL PO BID.' To calculate the child’s daily dose requirement, you multiply the child's weight (10 kg) by the prescribed dosage per kg, which is 8 mg for TMP and 40 mg for SMX. This results in a total daily requirement of 80 mg of TMP and 400 mg of SMX. To divide this into two doses, each dose should contain half of the total daily requirement, which is 40 mg TMP and 200 mg SMX. Since the liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL, the correct dose per administration is 5 mL. Therefore, 5 mL PO BID is the correct order. Choice B, '5 mL PO daily,' is incorrect as the total daily dose needs to be divided into two doses. Choices C and D, '10 mL PO BID' and '10 mL PO daily,' respectively, are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated dosage requirements based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage per kg.

4. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
• B. Measure the client's intake and output
• C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
• D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.

5. A nursing assistant is measuring the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client while a nurse observes. Which action on the part of the assistant would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply.

• A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes
• B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level
• C. Using a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles less than 80% of the limb
• D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup of coffee

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate blood pressure (BP) measurement, the cuff used should have a rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb being measured. This ensures proper compression and accurate readings. Choices A and B are correct practices as it is recommended to measure BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes and to have the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level. Choice D is also a correct reason for intervention as the client should not have consumed caffeine or smoked tobacco within 30 minutes before BP measurement, as it can affect the accuracy of the reading.

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