Nursing Elites

1. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by:

• A. Explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health.
• B. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established.
• C. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed.
• D. Instilling mild fear in the client to extinguish the behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundamental principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is rewarded is more likely to be continued. Therefore, rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed is the best approach to reinforce new adaptive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because simply explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health may not be as effective in promoting behavior change compared to positive reinforcement. Choice B is incorrect because withholding praise can hinder progress and motivation for the client. Choice D is incorrect because instilling fear is not a recommended method in behavior modification. It can lead to negative psychological effects and is not a sustainable approach to behavior change.

2. A patient asks the nurse about taking calcium supplements to avoid hypocalcemia. The nurse will suggest that the patient follow which instruction?

• A. Take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement.
• B. Take calcium along with phosphorus to improve absorption.
• C. Take calcium with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
• D. Use aspirin instead of acetaminophen when taking calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement. Vitamin D enhances the absorption of calcium in the body, making it an essential component for calcium utilization. Choice B is incorrect because calcium and phosphorus have an inverse relationship, where an increased level of one mineral decreases the level of the other, so taking them together may not be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because antacids often contain magnesium, which can promote calcium loss instead of absorption. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin can alter vitamin D levels and interfere with calcium absorption, so it is not recommended when taking calcium supplements.

3. Healthcare workers must protect themselves against becoming infected with HIV. The Center for Disease Control has issued guidelines for healthcare workers in relation to protection from HIV. These guidelines include which recommendation?

• A. Place HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limit visitors.
• B. Wear gloves when coming in contact with the blood or body fluids of any client.
• C. Conduct mandatory HIV testing of those who work with clients with AIDS.
• D. Freeze HIV blood specimens at -70°F to kill the virus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The CDC guidelines recommend that healthcare workers wear gloves when coming in contact with blood or body fluids from any client since HIV can be infectious before the client becomes aware of their exposure and/or symptomatic. Choice A is incorrect because placing HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limiting visitors is not a standard practice for HIV infection control. Choice C is incorrect as mandatory HIV testing for those working with AIDS clients is not a CDC recommendation for routine infection control. Choice D is incorrect because freezing HIV blood specimens at -70°F does not kill the virus; HIV can remain infectious even at very low temperatures.

4. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal).
• B. Captopril (Capoten).
• C. Furosemide (Lasix).
• D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

5. When providing care for an unconscious client who has seizures, which nursing intervention is most essential?

• A. Ensure oral suction is available.
• B. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Keep the room at a comfortable temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During seizures in an unconscious client, ensuring oral suction is available is crucial to managing secretions and preventing aspiration. This intervention helps maintain a clear airway and reduce the risk of complications. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position (Choice B) may be important for airway management but is not as critical as having oral suction ready. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice C) and keeping the room at a comfortable temperature (Choice D) are important aspects of overall care but are not as urgently needed as ensuring oral suction for managing secretions during seizures.

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