HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?
- A. Nausea and vomiting are uncommon adverse effects.
- B. The drug may cause possible teratogenic effects.
- C. Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.
- D. Use a backup method of contraception if taking oral contraceptives.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The desired action of oral contraceptives can be reduced when taken with tetracyclines like doxycycline. Therefore, patients on oral contraceptives should be advised to use a backup contraception method while taking doxycycline. Choice A is incorrect because nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of doxycycline. Choice B is incorrect because doxycycline is not known for causing teratogenic effects. Choice C is incorrect because dairy products can interfere with the absorption of doxycycline, so they should be avoided when taking this medication.
2. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
- B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
- C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
- D. Give an antihypertensive medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Clear dialysate inflow.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 62, PaCO2 59, and HCO3. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both the PaO2 and the PaCO2?
- A. The hypercapnia resulted from the rapid respirations.
- B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
- C. The client had a pneumothorax which restricted ventilation.
- D. The client had a pulmonary embolism that reduced perfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with COPD, oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive, which is the primary stimulus for breathing in these individuals. By providing supplemental oxygen, the hypoxic drive is diminished, resulting in decreased respiratory effort. As a consequence, the PaO2 may increase due to the supplemental oxygen, but this can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive and subsequent retention of carbon dioxide, causing an increase in PaCO2 levels. Option A is incorrect because rapid respirations would typically lower PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as a pneumothorax would lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased PaO2 levels without necessarily affecting PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as a pulmonary embolism would typically result in ventilation-perfusion mismatch and decreased PaO2 levels without directly impacting PaCO2 levels.
5. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
- B. Check the white blood cell count.
- C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
- D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access