Nursing Elites

1. A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting are uncommon adverse effects.
• B. The drug may cause possible teratogenic effects.
• C. Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.
• D. Use a backup method of contraception if taking oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The desired action of oral contraceptives can be reduced when taken with tetracyclines like doxycycline. Therefore, patients on oral contraceptives should be advised to use a backup contraception method while taking doxycycline. Choice A is incorrect because nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of doxycycline. Choice B is incorrect because doxycycline is not known for causing teratogenic effects. Choice C is incorrect because dairy products can interfere with the absorption of doxycycline, so they should be avoided when taking this medication.

2. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
• B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
• C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
• D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

3. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?

• A. Breast self-examinations are not necessary if annual mammograms are obtained.
• B. Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
• C. Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings.
• D. Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

5. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

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