HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. The provider has ordered Kayexalate and sorbitol to be administered to a patient. The nurse caring for this patient would expect which serum electrolyte values prior to administration of this therapy?
- A. Sodium 125 mEq/L and potassium 2.5 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 150 mEq/L and potassium 3.6 mEq/L
- C. Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 148 mEq/L and potassium 5.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia, with a potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L, requires aggressive treatment with Kayexalate and sorbitol to increase the body’s excretion of potassium. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L, so patients with the other potassium levels would not be treated aggressively or would need potassium supplementation. Therefore, option C (Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L) is the correct choice as it indicates severe hyperkalemia warranting the administration of Kayexalate and sorbitol. Options A, B, and D have either potassium levels within normal limits, which would not necessitate this aggressive treatment, or potassium levels that are lower than what would typically prompt the need for Kayexalate and sorbitol.
2. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?
- A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
- B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
- C. To improve the taste.
- D. To minimize toxic effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.
3. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:
- A. Calls the physician
- B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
- C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
- D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.
4. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by:
- A. Explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health.
- B. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established.
- C. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed.
- D. Instilling mild fear in the client to extinguish the behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundamental principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is rewarded is more likely to be continued. Therefore, rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed is the best approach to reinforce new adaptive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because simply explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health may not be as effective in promoting behavior change compared to positive reinforcement. Choice B is incorrect because withholding praise can hinder progress and motivation for the client. Choice D is incorrect because instilling fear is not a recommended method in behavior modification. It can lead to negative psychological effects and is not a sustainable approach to behavior change.
5. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.
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