Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?

• A. Pneumatic compression devices
• B. Incentive spirometry
• C. Assisted ambulation
• D. Calf-pump exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.

2. The nurse explains to the client with Hodgkin's disease that a bone marrow biopsy will be taken after the aspiration. What should the nurse explain about the biopsy?

• A. The biopsy will confirm the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease.
• B. The biopsy will show the extent of the disease in the bones.
• C. The biopsy will be done to check for infection in the bones.
• D. The biopsy will help determine the best treatment for the disease.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A bone marrow biopsy helps determine the best treatment plan for Hodgkin's disease by providing crucial information about the extent and nature of the disease. While confirming the diagnosis is important, the primary purpose of the biopsy in this case is to guide treatment decisions. The biopsy is not primarily for assessing the extent of the disease in the bones or checking for infections in the bones.

3. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
• B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
• C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Polyuria and excessive thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.

4. The nurse instructs the unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP) on how to provide oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task for themselves. Which of the following techniques should the nurse tell the UAP to incorporate into the client's daily care?

• A. Assess the oral cavity each time mouth care is given and record observations.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal.
• C. Swab the client's tongue, gums, and lips with a soft foam applicator every 2 hours.
• D. Rinse the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to incorporate into the client's daily care for oral hygiene is to use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal. This helps in maintaining oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task themselves. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the oral cavity each time mouth care is given is important but not the technique to incorporate into daily care. Choice C is incorrect as swabbing the tongue, gums, and lips every 2 hours may not be necessary for daily care. Choice D is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day may not be suitable for all clients and is not a standard recommendation for daily oral care.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To prevent clot formation.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.

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