Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering bronchodilators.
• B. Administering antibiotics.
• C. Administering IV fluids.
• D. Administering corticosteroids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

2. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

3. Which of the following is a common sign of meningitis?

• A. Joint pain.
• B. Severe headache.
• C. Stiff neck.
• D. Coughing up blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A stiff neck is a common sign of meningitis due to inflammation of the meninges. Meningitis typically presents with symptoms such as fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a stiff neck. Joint pain (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of meningitis and is more commonly associated with other conditions. While severe headache (Choice B) can be a symptom of meningitis, it is not as specific as a stiff neck. Coughing up blood (Choice D) is not a typical sign of meningitis and may indicate other respiratory or cardiovascular issues.

4. What information will the nurse provide when counseling a patient starting a sulfonamide drug for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Drink several quarts of water daily.
• B. If stomach upset occurs, avoid taking antacids.
• C. Limit sun exposure to avoid skin reactions.
• D. Report any sore throat promptly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink several quarts of water daily. This advice aims to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of sulfonamide drugs. Option B is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with sulfonamides as they can decrease drug absorption. Option C is incorrect as sulfonamides can increase sensitivity to sunlight, not requiring sun exposure limitations but sun protection measures. Option D is incorrect because a sore throat could indicate a more serious adverse effect and should be promptly reported for evaluation.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypocalcemia.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects? Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) is a medication used to lower phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure. It works by binding with dietary phosphate and preventing its absorption. However, this can lead to an excess of calcium in the blood, causing hypercalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of elevated calcium levels, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as calcium acetate does not typically cause hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia, or hypoglycemia.

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