which of the following is a primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack
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HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

2. A nurse has a prescription to insert a nasogastric tube into the stomach of an assigned client. Which action should the nurse take to insert the tube safely and easily?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to insert a nasogastric tube safely and easily is asking the client to swallow as the tube is being advanced. This action helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach. Placing the tube in warm water (Choice A) is not a recommended practice for nasogastric tube insertion. Hyperextending the head (Choice B) can cause discomfort and is not necessary for safe insertion. Removing the tube if resistance is met (Choice C) is incorrect as it may cause harm or discomfort to the client. Asking the client to swallow helps the tube pass more smoothly and comfortably.

3. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

4. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.

5. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The serum potassium level should be monitored closely in clients undergoing hemodialysis due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Hemodialysis is used to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because an imbalance can lead to serious cardiac complications, making it the priority value to monitor in this scenario. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for anemia assessment in chronic renal failure but is not directly related to hemodialysis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice B) and creatinine levels (choice D) are commonly monitored in renal function tests but are not the top priority for monitoring in a client undergoing hemodialysis.

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