HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering bronchodilators.
- B. Administering antibiotics.
- C. Administering IV fluids.
- D. Administering corticosteroids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.
2. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?
- A. Breast self-examinations are not necessary if annual mammograms are obtained.
- B. Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
- C. Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings.
- D. Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.
3. Blood is drawn from a client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level?
- A. 1.7 mg/dL
- B. 5.8 mg/dL
- C. 8.9 mg/dL
- D. 12.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The normal range for uric acid is 4.5 to 8 mg/dL for males and 2.5 to 6.2 mg/dL for females. A uric acid level of 5.8 mg/dL falls within the normal range. Choices A, C, and D are outside the normal reference range, making them incorrect. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the typical uric acid levels in the blood.
4. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?
- A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
- B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
- C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
- D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.
5. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate extremities on pillows
- B. Evaluate edema for pitting
- C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
- D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.
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