HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering bronchodilators.
- B. Administering antibiotics.
- C. Administering IV fluids.
- D. Administering corticosteroids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.
2. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
3. To assess the quality of an adult client's pain, what approach should the nurse use?
- A. Observe body language and movement.
- B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
- C. Identify effective pain relief measures.
- D. Provide a numeric pain scale.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to describe the pain. This approach allows the nurse to gather subjective information directly from the client, such as the quality, intensity, location, and factors that aggravate or alleviate the pain. Observing body language and movement (Choice A) can provide additional cues but may not fully capture the client's pain experience. Identifying effective pain relief measures (Choice C) and providing a numeric pain scale (Choice D) are important aspects of pain management but do not directly assess the quality of the client's pain.
4. Which of the following is a key symptom of hypothyroidism?
- A. Weight loss.
- B. Heat intolerance.
- C. Cold intolerance.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cold intolerance is a key symptom of hypothyroidism because a decreased metabolic rate leads to a reduced ability to regulate body temperature. Weight loss (Choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the metabolic rate is increased. Heat intolerance (Choice B) is also more indicative of hyperthyroidism, where excess thyroid hormone leads to an increased sensitivity to heat. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically seen in hypothyroidism; instead, individuals with hypothyroidism may experience weight gain due to the slowed metabolism.
5. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive GFR
- B. Reduced GFR
- C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.
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