HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering bronchodilators.
- B. Administering antibiotics.
- C. Administering IV fluids.
- D. Administering corticosteroids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.
2. A patient asks the nurse about taking calcium supplements to avoid hypocalcemia. The nurse will suggest that the patient follow which instruction?
- A. Take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement.
- B. Take calcium along with phosphorus to improve absorption.
- C. Take calcium with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
- D. Use aspirin instead of acetaminophen when taking calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement. Vitamin D enhances the absorption of calcium in the body, making it an essential component for calcium utilization. Choice B is incorrect because calcium and phosphorus have an inverse relationship, where an increased level of one mineral decreases the level of the other, so taking them together may not be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because antacids often contain magnesium, which can promote calcium loss instead of absorption. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin can alter vitamin D levels and interfere with calcium absorption, so it is not recommended when taking calcium supplements.
3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following lab values would be expected?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low hemoglobin levels.
- C. Elevated potassium levels.
- D. Low sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, elevated creatinine levels are expected due to impaired kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product that is typically filtered out by the kidneys. With kidney disease, the clearance of creatinine is reduced, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Low hemoglobin levels (choice B) may be seen in chronic kidney disease due to decreased production of erythropoietin. However, elevated potassium levels (choice C) and low sodium levels (choice D) are more commonly associated with kidney dysfunction but are not as specific indicators of chronic kidney disease as elevated creatinine levels.
4. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. An increase in abdominal girth.
- B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
- C. Decreased bowel sounds.
- D. Difficulty in handwriting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A client is getting out of bed for the first time since surgery. The client complains of dizziness after the nurse raises the head of the bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Checking the client’s blood pressure
- B. Checking the oxygen saturation level
- C. Having the client take some deep breaths
- D. Lowering the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences dizziness after being positioned upright for the first time post-surgery, the initial action the nurse should take is to lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness subsides. This maneuver helps alleviate the dizziness by allowing the body to adapt gradually to the change in position. Subsequently, the nurse should assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. Checking the blood pressure is essential to evaluate the circulatory status and rule out orthostatic hypotension as a cause of dizziness. Checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take deep breaths are not the priority in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the circulatory issue causing dizziness, not a respiratory problem.
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