Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering bronchodilators.
• B. Administering antibiotics.
• C. Administering IV fluids.
• D. Administering corticosteroids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

2. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Initiate isolation precautions
• B. Administer an antipyretic
• C. Draw blood cultures
• D. Prepare for lumbar puncture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.

3. A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.

4. A client is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following statements indicates the need for more teaching by the nurse?

• A. I should take all my medications every morning.
• B. The catheter should always remain in place.
• C. The catheter should be flushed daily with sterile saline.
• D. If I gain 2 pounds, I should skip dialysis that day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Gaining weight is a sign that the client may be retaining fluid, indicating a need for dialysis to remove excess fluid. Skipping dialysis based on weight gain can lead to fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and other serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding peritoneal dialysis care: taking medications as prescribed is essential for overall health, ensuring the catheter remains in place is crucial to prevent infection, and flushing the catheter with sterile saline daily helps maintain its patency and reduce the risk of infections.

5. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin.
• B. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Check the client’s capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin.
• D. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client’s health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client’s blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client’s plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.

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