Nursing Elites

1. Healthcare workers must protect themselves against becoming infected with HIV. The Center for Disease Control has issued guidelines for healthcare workers in relation to protection from HIV. These guidelines include which recommendation?

• A. Place HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limit visitors.
• B. Wear gloves when coming in contact with the blood or body fluids of any client.
• C. Conduct mandatory HIV testing of those who work with clients with AIDS.
• D. Freeze HIV blood specimens at -70°F to kill the virus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The CDC guidelines recommend that healthcare workers wear gloves when coming in contact with blood or body fluids from any client since HIV can be infectious before the client becomes aware of their exposure and/or symptomatic. Choice A is incorrect because placing HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limiting visitors is not a standard practice for HIV infection control. Choice C is incorrect as mandatory HIV testing for those working with AIDS clients is not a CDC recommendation for routine infection control. Choice D is incorrect because freezing HIV blood specimens at -70°F does not kill the virus; HIV can remain infectious even at very low temperatures.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
• B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
• C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
• D. Take the normal dose of insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient whose serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse will contact the patient’s provider to discuss an order for

• A. a low-potassium diet.
• B. intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• C. Kayexalate and sorbitol.
• D. salt substitutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The appropriate intervention for mild hyperkalemia is a low-potassium diet to restrict potassium intake. This helps in managing and preventing further elevation of potassium levels. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is not indicated as the patient's sodium level is normal at 140 mEq/L. Kayexalate, a cation-exchange resin, is typically used for severe hyperkalemia to promote potassium excretion. Salt substitutes, which often contain potassium chloride, should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia as they can exacerbate the condition by increasing potassium levels further.

4. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

5. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.

• A. The client becomes cyanotic.
• B. Secretions are bloody.
• C. The client gags during the procedure.
• D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.

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