Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

• A. Muscle atrophy.
• B. Severe pain.
• C. Vision problems.
• D. Hearing loss.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vision problems are a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of the optic nerve. This can lead to issues such as optic neuritis, blurred vision, double vision, or even total vision loss. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a primary symptom of MS but can occur as a secondary effect of decreased mobility. Severe pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of MS, though some individuals may experience pain related to muscle spasms or other factors. Hearing loss (Choice D) is not commonly associated with MS unless there is an unrelated concurrent condition affecting the auditory system.

2. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?

• A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
• B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
• C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
• D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.

3. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?

• A. Decreased calcium levels
• B. Increased phosphorus levels
• C. No adventitious sounds in the lungs
• D. Increased edema in the legs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs is a key indicator that the client's fluid balance is stable. Adventitious sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are typically heard in conditions of fluid overload, indicating that the body is retaining excess fluid. Choices A and B, decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels, are common laboratory findings associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and are not directly related to fluid balance. Increased edema in the legs is a sign of fluid imbalance, suggesting fluid retention in the tissues, which would not indicate stable fluid balance in a client with CKD on fluid restrictions.

4. The patient has a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 82/58 mm Hg, is lethargic, complaining of muscle weakness, and has had gastroenteritis for several days. Based on these findings, which sodium value would the nurse expect?

• A. 126 mEq/L
• B. 140 mEq/L
• C. 145 mEq/L
• D. 158 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tachycardia, hypotension, lethargy, muscle weakness, and gastroenteritis suggests hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is characterized by a serum sodium level below the normal range of 135-145 mEq/L. A serum sodium level of 126 mEq/L falls significantly below this range, indicating hyponatremia. Choice B (140 mEq/L) and Choice C (145 mEq/L) are within the normal range for serum sodium levels and would not explain the patient's symptoms. Choice D (158 mEq/L) is above the normal range and would indicate hypernatremia, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.

5. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

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