HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
- A. Muscle atrophy.
- B. Severe pain.
- C. Vision problems.
- D. Hearing loss.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vision problems are a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of the optic nerve. This can lead to issues such as optic neuritis, blurred vision, double vision, or even total vision loss. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a primary symptom of MS but can occur as a secondary effect of decreased mobility. Severe pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of MS, though some individuals may experience pain related to muscle spasms or other factors. Hearing loss (Choice D) is not commonly associated with MS unless there is an unrelated concurrent condition affecting the auditory system.
2. Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
- C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
- D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.
3. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?
- A. Gout
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Renal calculi
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.
4. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?
- A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
- B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
- C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
- D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.
5. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?
- A. An enlarged, distended abdomen.
- B. Crackles in the bases of both lungs.
- C. Jugular vein distension.
- D. Peripheral edema.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crackles in the bases of the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation, which is common in left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood from the lungs to the rest of the body, leading to a backup of fluid in the lungs. This results in crackles heard on auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific to left-sided heart failure. An enlarged, distended abdomen may indicate ascites or liver congestion. Jugular vein distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, and peripheral edema is a sign of fluid accumulation in the tissues, which can occur in both types of heart failure but is not as specific to left-sided heart failure as crackles in the lungs.
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