a nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis the clients glomerular filtration rate gfr is 40 mlmin as measured by a 24 hou
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam

1. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

2. Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.

3. Oxygen via nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the physician’s orders to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 3 L/min. Clients with emphysema typically receive oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 L/min, with a maximum of 3 L/min. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity in these clients, so it's crucial to adhere to the prescribed limits. Choice A (1 L/min) is too low and may not provide adequate oxygenation for the client. Choices C (4 L/min) and D (6 L/min) exceed the recommended flow rates for clients with emphysema and can increase the risk of oxygen toxicity.

4. A client with histoplasmosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 27 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and an elevated PCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is inadequate excretion of CO2, leading to increased PCO2 levels and a decrease in pH. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis'. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis involves low pH and high PCO2 levels, as seen in this case. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with high pH and low PCO2 levels.

5. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

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