HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive GFR
- B. Reduced GFR
- C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.
2. A nurse reviews a female client’s laboratory results. Which result from the client’s urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal?
- A. pH 5.6
- B. Ketone bodies present
- C. Specific gravity of 1.020
- D. Clear and yellow color
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ketone bodies present. Ketone bodies in urine indicate abnormal metabolism, specifically the incomplete breakdown of fatty acids. Normally, there should be no ketones present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when the body uses fat sources instead of glucose for cellular energy. A pH range between 4.6 and 8, a specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow color in urine are considered normal findings for a female client’s urinalysis. Therefore, options A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of abnormal results in the urinalysis.
3. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client’s blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow.
- B. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- C. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During hemodialysis, a drop in blood pressure can occur due to fluid removal. To maintain blood pressure, the nurse should consider adjusting the rate of extracorporeal blood flow to optimize fluid removal without causing hypotension. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position can help improve venous return and cardiac output. Administering a bolus of normal saline can help increase intravascular volume and support blood pressure. Therefore, all the actions listed in choices A, B, and C are appropriate measures to maintain blood pressure during hemodialysis. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as it encompasses all the relevant actions to address the dropping blood pressure effectively. Choices A, B, and C, when implemented together, can help manage hypotension during hemodialysis.
4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
- B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
- C. Assess the client's core temperature.
- D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.
5. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Lower sodium
- B. Lower potassium
- C. Higher phosphorus
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.
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