Nursing Elites

1. A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Pupil constriction
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Complaints of dry mouth
• D. Complaints of feeling sweaty

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Complaints of feeling sweaty.' Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, commonly causes the side effect of decreased sweating, not increased urine output or pupil constriction. While dry mouth is a possible side effect, it is less likely than the altered sweating pattern. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for complaints of feeling sweaty due to the potential side effect of decreased sweating associated with scopolamine.

2. A nurse is preparing for intershift report when a nurse’s aide pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Checking the hourly urine output
• C. Checking the IV site for infiltration
• D. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock, indicated by tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is the initial action to improve venous return, cardiac output, and subsequently increase blood pressure. This position helps redistribute blood flow to vital organs. Calling the physician should follow once immediate intervention has been initiated. Checking the hourly urine output and IV site are important assessments but are secondary to addressing the client's hemodynamic instability and potential for shock.

3. In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following lab results would be expected?

• A. Increased bilirubin levels.
• B. Decreased albumin levels.
• C. Increased liver enzymes.
• D. Decreased platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with liver cirrhosis, increased bilirubin levels would be expected. Liver cirrhosis leads to impaired liver function, causing a decrease in the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased albumin levels (choice B) may occur in liver cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of proteins, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels. Increased liver enzymes (choice C) can be seen in liver damage but are not as characteristic as elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased platelet count (choice D) can occur in liver cirrhosis due to hypersplenism, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels in this context.

4. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.

• A. Unequal chest expansion
• B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
• D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.

5. A healthcare professional reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which results from the client’s urinalysis should the healthcare professional identify as normal? (Select all that apply.)

• A. pH: 6
• B. Specific gravity: 1.015
• C. Glucose: negative
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a urinalysis, a pH of 6 is within the normal range (typically between 4.6 and 8); a specific gravity of 1.015 is considered normal (usually ranging between 1.005 to 1.030); and a negative glucose result is also normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are correct as they fall within the normal values for a urinalysis. Choices A, B, and C are the correct answers, as the pH, specific gravity, and glucose levels are within the normal range for a urinalysis. Choice D is correct because all the listed values are normal. Choices A, B, and C are the correct options as they meet the criteria for normal urinalysis values. The other choices do not fall within the normal range for a urinalysis.

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