HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased pain.
- D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.
2. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive GFR
- B. Reduced GFR
- C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.
3. The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?
- A. 10 units.
- B. 22 units.
- C. 32 units.
- D. 24 units.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct dose would be 32 units, which is the sum of 10 units of regular insulin and 22 units of NPH. It is essential to combine the doses of both types of insulin to ensure the client administers the correct total dose. Choices A and B represent the individual doses of regular and NPH insulin, respectively, not the combined total. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the sum of both insulin doses.
4. The client is preparing a morning dose of insulin, which includes 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse is verifying the client's preparation accuracy. What should the syringe read for the correct dose?
- A. 22 units.
- B. 10 units.
- C. 32 units.
- D. 42 units.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 32 units. To determine the correct dose, the nurse needs to add the 10 units of regular insulin to the 22 units of NPH, resulting in a total of 32 units. Therefore, the syringe should read 32 units. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate total dose required for the morning insulin administration.
5. Oxygen via nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the physician’s orders to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than:
- A. 1 L/min
- B. 3 L/min
- C. 4 L/min
- D. 6 L/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 3 L/min. Clients with emphysema typically receive oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 L/min, with a maximum of 3 L/min. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity in these clients, so it's crucial to adhere to the prescribed limits. Choice A (1 L/min) is too low and may not provide adequate oxygenation for the client. Choices C (4 L/min) and D (6 L/min) exceed the recommended flow rates for clients with emphysema and can increase the risk of oxygen toxicity.
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