Nursing Elites

1. A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern?

• A. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL
• B. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL
• C. Sodium level of 135 mmol/L
• D. Potassium level of 5.5 mmol/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a protein-restricted diet is crucial to prevent the buildup of waste products. A low albumin level (<3.5 g/dL) indicates inadequate protein intake, raising concern as it may lead to malnutrition and tissue breakdown. Phosphorus, sodium, and potassium levels are not directly impacted by protein intake. Phosphorus levels may elevate in renal failure, but at 5 mg/dL, it is within normal range. Sodium and potassium levels are also within normal limits and not influenced by protein restriction.

2. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
• B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
• C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
• D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

3. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:

• A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
• B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
• C. Cushing's syndrome.
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.

4. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:

• A. Competent venous valves.
• B. Decreased blood volume.
• C. Increase in muscular activity.
• D. Increased venous pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies of a client with suspected hepatitis. Which increased parameter is interpreted as the most specific indicator of this disease?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Serum bilirubin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum bilirubin is the most specific indicator of hepatitis as it reflects liver dysfunction. Hemoglobin, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are not specific to hepatitis. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, BUN evaluates kidney function, and ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation or infection.

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