Nursing Elites

1. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
• B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
• C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
• D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.

2. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after bronchoscopy. To which intervention should the nurse give priority?

• A. Assessing the client for the return of the gag reflex
• B. Administering pain medication
• C. Encouraging copious fluid intake
• D. Ambulating the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After bronchoscopy, the priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client for the return of the gag reflex. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent aspiration. Keeping the client on nothing-by-mouth status until the gag reflex returns is essential. Administering pain medication, encouraging fluid intake, and ambulating the client are important interventions but assessing the gag reflex takes precedence due to the risk of aspiration post-bronchoscopy.

3. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. IV fluid infusion.
• B. Pedal pulses.
• C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
• D. Capillary refill time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.

4. A client expresses difficulty voiding in public places. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Offer to turn on the faucet in the bathroom to help stimulate urination.
• B. Suggest a prescription for a diuretic to increase urine output.
• C. Propose moving to a room with a private bathroom to enhance comfort.
• D. Close the curtain to provide maximum privacy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize the client's privacy when addressing issues related to voiding discomfort in public places. Closing the curtain in the current room would offer immediate privacy and support the client's needs. Turning on the faucet is not an evidence-based intervention for voiding difficulties. Prescribing a diuretic is not appropriate without further assessment. While moving to a room with a private bathroom might be ideal, it may not be immediately feasible, making ensuring privacy in the current setting the most appropriate action.

5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?

• A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
• C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
• D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.

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