Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?

• A. Inadequate drug effects
• B. Increased risk of superinfection
• C. Minimal adverse effects
• D. Slowed onset of action

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.

3. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To prevent clot formation.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.

4. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:

• A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
• D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.

5. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
• B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
• C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
• D. Give an antihypertensive medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.

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