Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

2. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient’s current infection is not responding to an antibiotic that has been used successfully several times in the past. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to

• A. acquired bacterial resistance.
• B. cross-resistance.
• C. inherent bacterial resistance.
• D. transferred resistance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired bacterial resistance. Acquired resistance happens when an organism has been exposed to the antibacterial drug, making it less effective over time. Cross-resistance (B) occurs when resistance to one drug leads to resistance to another. Inherent resistance (C) happens without prior exposure to the drug, meaning the bacteria are naturally resistant. Transferred resistance (D) involves the transfer of resistant genes from one organism to another, contributing to resistance development.

4. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?

• A. Elevated creatinine levels.
• B. Low potassium levels.
• C. Low calcium levels.
• D. High sodium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.

5. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to

• A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
• B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
• C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
• D. take these medications in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.

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