Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

2. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
• C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
• D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

4. A client taking furosemide (Lasix) reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. What dose of medication are you taking?
• B. Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
• C. Have you lost weight recently?
• D. At what time do you take your medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix. Due to the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia, which may be contributing to the sleep difficulties. Asking about the dose of medication (Choice A) is important but addressing the timing of intake is more crucial in this situation. Inquiring about potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is relevant for clients on potassium-sparing diuretics. Weight loss (Choice C) may be relevant for monitoring the client's overall health but is not directly related to the sleep issue in this case.

5. The nurse is planning care for an older adult client who experienced a cerebrovascular accident several weeks ago. The client has expressive aphasia and often becomes frustrated with the nursing staff. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Teach the client the use of basic sign language
• B. Speak slowly to the client
• C. Encourage the client's use of picture charts
• D. Ask the client simple questions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client's use of picture charts is the most appropriate intervention for a client with expressive aphasia. Picture charts provide visual cues that can aid in communication and reduce frustration for the client. This intervention can help the client express their needs and thoughts effectively. Teaching sign language (Choice A) may be challenging and not as practical in this situation as it may not address the specific communication barriers caused by expressive aphasia. Speaking slowly (Choice B) may not fully address the communication difficulties associated with expressive aphasia. Asking simple questions (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may have difficulty understanding and responding due to the nature of expressive aphasia.

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