Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
• C. Request an order for a colloidal IV solution.
• D. Request an order for a hypertonic IV solution.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.

3. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

4. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.

5. A client is being prepared for transfer to the operating room. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in the care of this client at this time?

• A. Ensuring that the client has voided
• B. Administering all daily medications
• C. Practicing postoperative breathing exercises
• D. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the client has voided, especially if a Foley catheter is not in place. This step is important to prevent urinary retention during the surgical procedure. Administering all daily medications just before surgery is not standard practice. The physician typically provides specific orders regarding which medications can be taken with a sip of water before surgery. Postoperative breathing exercises are usually taught after surgery to prevent complications like atelectasis. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours is not a standard preoperative practice; instead, the client is usually instructed to fast for a specific period before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia.

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