Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Clear dialysate inflow.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.

3. The client with chronic renal failure is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• B. I can drink as much fluid as I want as long as I take my medication.
• C. I will skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which is crucial in managing chronic renal failure. Adequate fluid restriction is essential to prevent complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes excessive fluid intake, which can worsen the client's condition by putting additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as skipping dialysis sessions can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, worsening renal failure and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. Choice D is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to a specific volume may not be appropriate for all clients and can vary depending on individual needs, medical condition, and healthcare provider recommendations.

4. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.

• A. The client becomes cyanotic.
• B. Secretions are bloody.
• C. The client gags during the procedure.
• D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.

5. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Administering oxygen.
• B. Administering nitroglycerin.
• C. Administering aspirin.
• D. Administering morphine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction to improve oxygenation. Oxygen helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, reducing the workload on the heart. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions in the treatment of MI; however, oxygen administration takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygenation. Morphine may be considered for pain relief, but it is not the initial priority in the treatment of a suspected MI.

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