Nursing Elites

1. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Fever.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.

2. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?

• A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
• D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.

3. A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.

4. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics.
• B. Administering IV fluids.
• C. Administering antipyretics.
• D. Monitoring blood cultures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a crucial intervention in suspected sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is essential for guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but should be guided by blood culture results. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also essential to support hemodynamic stability in sepsis. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever but is not a priority compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

5. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

Similar Questions