HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Infection.
- D. Fever.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.
2. The client with chronic renal failure is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- B. I can drink as much fluid as I want as long as I take my medication.
- C. I will skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
- D. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which is crucial in managing chronic renal failure. Adequate fluid restriction is essential to prevent complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes excessive fluid intake, which can worsen the client's condition by putting additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as skipping dialysis sessions can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, worsening renal failure and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. Choice D is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to a specific volume may not be appropriate for all clients and can vary depending on individual needs, medical condition, and healthcare provider recommendations.
3. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
- B. Place the client on restricted fluids.
- C. Assess the client’s creatinine level.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.
4. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Lipiduria
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.
5. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?
- A. 12 breaths/min
- B. 16 breaths/min
- C. 18 breaths/min
- D. 22 breaths/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.
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