Nursing Elites

1. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Fever.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
• B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
• C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

4. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?

• A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
• B. I do not have headaches anymore.
• C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
• D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.

5. A client is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a urine output of 2000 mL/day. What is the major concern of the nurse regarding this client’s care?

• A. Edema and pain
• B. Electrolyte and fluid imbalance
• C. Cardiac and respiratory status
• D. Mental health status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major concern for a client admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a high urine output of 2000 mL/day is electrolyte and fluid imbalance. In AKI, there may be an inflammatory cause leading to proteins entering the glomerulus, resulting in fluid being held in the filtrate and causing polyuria. Electrolyte loss and fluid balance are critical to monitor and manage in AKI cases. Edema and pain are not typically associated with fluid loss. While changes in cardiac, respiratory, and mental health status can occur if electrolyte imbalance is not addressed, the primary focus should be on managing electrolyte and fluid balance to prevent further complications.

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