HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. After educating a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day.
- B. I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet.
- C. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones.
- D. The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To prevent the formation of renal calculi, it is essential to maintain adequate hydration as dehydration can contribute to the precipitation of minerals leading to stone formation. Therefore, the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching is choice A. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine and reduces the risk of stone formation. Eliminating all sources of calcium is not recommended as calcium is essential for various bodily functions and eliminating it can lead to other health issues. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products do not directly cause kidney stones. Antibiotics are not used to prevent or treat renal calculi, as they are not caused by bacterial infections.
2. After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a laxative every night before going to bed.
- B. I must increase my intake of dietary fiber and fluids.
- C. I shall only use salt when I am cooking my own food.
- D. I’ll eat white bread to minimize gastrointestinal gas.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Clients with PKD often experience constipation, which can be managed by increasing their intake of dietary fiber and fluids. This helps promote bowel regularity. Laxatives should be used cautiously and not as a routine solution. Choice A is incorrect as regular laxative use is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as a low-salt diet is typically advised for clients with PKD, not just limiting salt while cooking. Choice D is incorrect as white bread is low in fiber and not beneficial for managing constipation, which is common in PKD.
3. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. IV fluid infusion.
- B. Pedal pulses.
- C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
- D. Capillary refill time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.
4. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?
- A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
- B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
- C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
- D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.
5. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
- B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
- C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
- D. Give an antihypertensive medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.
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