HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
2. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.
3. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
- B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
4. A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client has misunderstood the directions if the client indicates that as part of aftercare he plans to:
- A. Use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed
- B. Return in 7 days to have the sutures removed
- C. Apply cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes
- D. Call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes is not a recommended aftercare practice for a skin biopsy. After a skin biopsy, it is important to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. Choice A is correct as using the antibiotic ointment as prescribed is a common post-biopsy instruction to prevent infection. Choice B is also correct as returning in 7 days to have the sutures removed is part of the typical follow-up care after a skin biopsy. Choice D is correct as it is important to call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs to prevent complications.
5. Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
- A. Cigarette smoking.
- B. High-cholesterol diet.
- C. Obesity.
- D. Hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obesity is the most significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to its role in insulin resistance. Excess body fat, especially around the abdomen, leads to increased production of inflammatory markers and hormones that can cause insulin resistance. While cigarette smoking, high-cholesterol diet, and hypertension can contribute to health issues, they are not as directly linked to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus as obesity.
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