HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
2. An older client with long-term type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is seen in the clinic for a routine health assessment. Which assessment would the nurse complete to determine if a patient with type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is experiencing long-term complications?
- A. Signs of respiratory tract infection
- B. Sensation in feet and legs
- C. Skin condition of lower extremities
- D. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing sensation in the feet and legs is crucial for detecting diabetic neuropathy, a common long-term complication of diabetes. While signs of respiratory tract infection, skin condition of lower extremities, and serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels are important assessments in diabetic care, they are not specific for detecting long-term complications like neuropathy.
3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Hyponatremia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct answer is C, 'Hyperkalemia.' Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is a medication used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to assess the effectiveness of the medication and prevent potential complications related to hyperkalemia. Choice A, 'Hyponatremia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not primarily affect sodium levels. Choice B, 'Hypokalemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate is used to treat high potassium levels, not low. Choice D, 'Hypocalcemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not directly impact calcium levels.
4. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
- B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
- C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
- D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Fatigue.
- D. Headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are critical symptoms that should be reported immediately when a client is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. These symptoms could indicate a severe complication, such as hypotension, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or other adverse reactions to the procedure. It is essential to address these symptoms promptly to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Choices A, C, and D are not immediate concerns during the first hemodialysis session and can be addressed appropriately after addressing the urgent issue of nausea and vomiting.
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