HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
2. A client with cholelithiasis is admitted with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Distended, hard, and rigid abdomen
- B. Clay-colored stool
- C. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder
- D. Bile-stained emesis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider in a client with cholelithiasis and jaundice due to common bile duct obstruction is a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen. These signs may indicate a possible surgical emergency, such as a complication like gallbladder perforation or peritonitis, which require immediate intervention. Clay-colored stool is associated with obstructive jaundice but does not indicate an acute surgical emergency. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder (referred pain from the diaphragm) and bile-stained emesis may also be seen in cholelithiasis but are not as urgent as a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen.
3. A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child’s dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?
- A. 5 mL PO BID
- B. 5 mL PO daily
- C. 10 mL PO BID
- D. 10 mL PO daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '5 mL PO BID.' To calculate the child’s daily dose requirement, you multiply the child's weight (10 kg) by the prescribed dosage per kg, which is 8 mg for TMP and 40 mg for SMX. This results in a total daily requirement of 80 mg of TMP and 400 mg of SMX. To divide this into two doses, each dose should contain half of the total daily requirement, which is 40 mg TMP and 200 mg SMX. Since the liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL, the correct dose per administration is 5 mL. Therefore, 5 mL PO BID is the correct order. Choice B, '5 mL PO daily,' is incorrect as the total daily dose needs to be divided into two doses. Choices C and D, '10 mL PO BID' and '10 mL PO daily,' respectively, are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated dosage requirements based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage per kg.
4. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.
- A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
- B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
- C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
- D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.
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