Nursing Elites

1. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes diagnostic tests for a client with pneumonia identified on a chest X-ray. Which diagnostic test should the nurse review for implementation to guide the most therapeutic treatment of pneumonia?

• A. Sputum culture and sensitivity
• B. Blood cultures
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABG)
• D. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sputum culture and sensitivity is the most appropriate diagnostic test for pneumonia as it helps in identifying the causative organism, which is crucial for guiding the selection of the most effective antibiotic therapy. Blood cultures (choice B) are more useful in identifying systemic infections rather than pneumonia specifically. Arterial blood gases (ABG) (choice C) are helpful in assessing oxygenation but do not directly aid in identifying the causative organism. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest (choice D) is useful for evaluating structural abnormalities in the lungs but is not the initial test of choice for diagnosing pneumonia.

3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is receiving prednisone 5 mg PO daily for a rash due to contact with poison ivy. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Rapid weight gain
• B. Abdominal striae
• C. Moon faces
• D. Gastric irritation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a serious side effect of prednisone and should be reported.

4. A client with a history of lung disease is at risk for respiratory acidosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disorientation and dyspnea. In respiratory acidosis, the retention of carbon dioxide leads to an increase in carbonic acid, causing the pH of the blood to decrease. This can result in symptoms such as dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to hypoxia and disorientation due to the effects of hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide levels) on the brain. Choice B is incorrect because while drowsiness and tachypnea can be present in respiratory acidosis, headache is not a common symptom. Choice C is incorrect because dizziness and paresthesias are not typical symptoms of respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect because dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth are more commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

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