Nursing Elites

1. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

2. A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?

• A. Alzheimer’s disease
• B. Hypertension
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Viral hepatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.

3. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
• B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
• C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
• D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

4. The client is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer anticoagulants to prevent clot formation.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
• C. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
• D. Encourage the client to drink at least 2 liters of fluid daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients receiving hemodialysis because they are at an increased risk of infection due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Administering anticoagulants is not typically a part of the routine care for clients undergoing hemodialysis unless specifically prescribed. While a high-protein diet may be beneficial for some clients, it is not a specific intervention related to hemodialysis. Encouraging fluid intake must be individualized based on the client's fluid status and should not be a generalized recommendation for all clients receiving hemodialysis.

5. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?

• A. Aching pain in the left calf.
• B. Burning pain in the left calf.
• C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
• D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.

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