HESI RN
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1. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
- C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
- D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?
- A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
- B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
- C. Peripheral neuropathy.
- D. Uremic fetor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.
3. A patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia after complaining of high fever and shortness of breath. The patient was not able to produce sputum for a culture. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order
- A. a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
- B. a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
- C. multiple antibiotics.
- D. the pneumococcal vaccine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario where the offending organism causing pneumonia is unknown due to the inability to produce sputum for culture, the appropriate choice is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used when the specific pathogen is unidentified. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria and are chosen based on culture and sensitivity results. Using multiple antibiotics without a clear indication from culture and sensitivity testing can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended in this situation. Additionally, the pneumococcal vaccine is preventive and does not treat an ongoing infection like pneumonia.
4. To reduce the risk of pulmonary complications for a client with ALS, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy
- B. Teach the client breathing exercises
- C. Initiate passive range of motion exercises
- D. Establish a regular bladder routine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing chest physiotherapy is the most appropriate intervention to reduce the risk of pulmonary complications in clients with ALS. Chest physiotherapy helps mobilize and clear respiratory secretions, improving lung function and reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Teaching breathing exercises (Choice B) may be beneficial for some clients, but chest physiotherapy is more specifically targeted at managing pulmonary issues in ALS. Initiating passive range of motion exercises (Choice C) and establishing a regular bladder routine (Choice D) are important interventions in ALS care but are not directly related to reducing the risk of pulmonary complications.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the healthcare professional that the client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range?
- A. 2 mg/dL
- B. 18 mg/dL
- C. 25 mg/dL
- D. 35 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The normal BUN ranges from 5 to 20 mg/dL. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL falls within this normal range. Values of 25 and 35 mg/dL are elevated, suggesting potential renal insufficiency. Choice A (2 mg/dL) is abnormally low and not indicative of a normal BUN level.
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