Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.

2. A client who just returned from the recovery room after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is restless, and her pulse rate is increased. As the nurse continues the assessment, the client begins to vomit a copious amount of bright-red blood. The immediate nursing action is to:

• A. Notify the surgeon
• B. Continue the assessment
• C. Check the client’s blood pressure
• D. Obtain a flashlight, gauze, and a curved hemostat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's presentation with bright-red blood vomiting after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is highly concerning for an immediate postoperative hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the surgeon immediately. Prompt communication with the surgeon is vital to ensure swift intervention and appropriate management to address the hemorrhage effectively. Continuing the assessment, checking the client's blood pressure, or obtaining equipment are all secondary actions in this critical situation and would delay the necessary urgent intervention required to manage the hemorrhage effectively.

3. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
• B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
• C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
• D. Stage I indicates metastasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.

4. The patient is being educated on taking hydrochlorothiazide. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I may need additional sodium and calcium while taking this medication.
• B. I should consume plenty of fruits and vegetables while taking this drug.
• C. I should be cautious when getting up from a bed or chair while on this medication.
• D. I will take the medication in the morning to reduce certain side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients do not require extra sodium or calcium while taking hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic. This medication actually promotes the excretion of sodium and water. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements regarding the use of hydrochlorothiazide. Patients are encouraged to have a diet rich in fruits and vegetables, be careful with position changes due to potential orthostatic hypotension, and take the medication in the morning to reduce the need for frequent urination during nighttime.

5. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
• B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
• C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
• D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

Similar Questions