Nursing Elites

1. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?

• A. Hypermagnesemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.

2. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
• B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
• C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
• D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

3. During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, 'What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Neither plan allows the selection of healthcare providers or hospitals.
• B. There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
• C. An individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network.
• D. An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is option C, as it highlights a key advantage of a preferred provider organization (PPO) insurance plan. By stating that an individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network, the nurse emphasizes the flexibility and freedom of choice that PPO plans offer. This feature allows individuals to seek care from providers who are not part of the PPO network, albeit at a higher cost. Option A is incorrect because both PPO and HMO plans allow the selection of healthcare providers, although with different restrictions. Option B is incorrect as PPO plans typically offer a larger selection of healthcare providers compared to HMO plans. Option D is incorrect as membership in a PPO usually requires affiliation with a group, such as through employment or membership in an organization.

4. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

• A. Seafood
• B. Penicillin
• C. Bee stings
• D. Red food dye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The nurse will be most concerned if the patient reports which symptom?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Dysuria
• C. Nausea
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tinnitus. When furosemide and an aminoglycoside antibiotic are used together, there is an increased risk of ototoxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is a common early sign of ototoxicity. Dizziness (choice A) is a common side effect of furosemide but not specifically related to this drug interaction. Dysuria (choice B) is painful urination and is not directly associated with this drug combination. Nausea (choice C) is a common side effect of furosemide but is not specifically indicative of ototoxicity caused by the drug interaction.

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