Nursing Elites

1. Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma?

• A. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
• B. Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
• C. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
• D. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting non-cancerous tumor of the adrenal medulla. The classic triad of symptoms includes headache, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), and palpitations, which result from the overproduction of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities (Option A) are not characteristic of pheochromocytoma. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock (Option C) are not typical symptoms of this condition. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness (Option D) are not commonly associated with pheochromocytoma.

2. A female patient who is allergic to penicillin will begin taking an antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient tells the nurse that she almost always develops a vaginal yeast infection when she takes antibiotics and that she will take fluconazole (Diflucan) with the antibiotic being prescribed. Which macrolide should the nurse question for this patient?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription of erythromycin for this patient. When erythromycin is given concurrently with fluconazole, erythromycin blood concentration and the risk of sudden cardiac death increase. Therefore, it is not recommended to use erythromycin in combination with fluconazole for this patient. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and fidaxomicin are alternative macrolide antibiotics that can be considered for this patient without the same risk of interactions when used with fluconazole.

3. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?

• A. 12 breaths/min
• B. 16 breaths/min
• C. 18 breaths/min
• D. 22 breaths/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client to lay on the surgical incision.
• B. Measure the specific gravity of the client’s urine.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medications.
• D. Assess the rate and quality of the client’s pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

5. A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Continue suctioning to remove the blood
• B. Check the degree of suction being applied
• C. Encourage the client to cough out the bloody secretions
• D. Remove the suction catheter from the client’s nose and begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the degree of suction being applied (Choice B). When bloody secretions are encountered during nasopharyngeal suctioning, it is crucial to assess the situation promptly. Checking the degree of suction being applied is the first step as excessive suction pressure may be causing trauma and bleeding. Adjusting the suction pressure may be necessary to prevent further harm. Continuing suctioning to remove the blood (Choice A) or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth (Choice D) can lead to increased trauma and worsen bleeding. Encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions (Choice C) is not appropriate since the client undergoing suctioning is typically unable to expectorate secretions. Therefore, the priority is to check and adjust the suction settings to ensure safe and effective suctioning.

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