Nursing Elites

1. Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma?

• A. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
• B. Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
• C. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
• D. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting non-cancerous tumor of the adrenal medulla. The classic triad of symptoms includes headache, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), and palpitations, which result from the overproduction of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities (Option A) are not characteristic of pheochromocytoma. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock (Option C) are not typical symptoms of this condition. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness (Option D) are not commonly associated with pheochromocytoma.

2. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer the prescribed antibiotics.
• B. Monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• D. Monitor the client's weight daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a severe complication associated with peritoneal dialysis, making it essential to promptly identify any signs of infection, such as abdominal pain, cloudy dialysate, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Administering antibiotics without proper assessment can lead to antibiotic resistance and should not be the initial action. Encouraging increased fluid intake may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status. Monitoring weight alone does not address the immediate risk of peritonitis in a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis.

3. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

4. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.

• A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
• B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
• C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
• D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

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