Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Daily weight measurements.
• B. Monitoring intake and output.
• C. Assessing skin turgor.
• D. Checking for peripheral edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

2. A healthcare professional reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which results from the client’s urinalysis should the healthcare professional identify as normal? (Select all that apply.)

• A. pH: 6
• B. Specific gravity: 1.015
• C. Glucose: negative
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a urinalysis, a pH of 6 is within the normal range (typically between 4.6 and 8); a specific gravity of 1.015 is considered normal (usually ranging between 1.005 to 1.030); and a negative glucose result is also normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are correct as they fall within the normal values for a urinalysis. Choices A, B, and C are the correct answers, as the pH, specific gravity, and glucose levels are within the normal range for a urinalysis. Choice D is correct because all the listed values are normal. Choices A, B, and C are the correct options as they meet the criteria for normal urinalysis values. The other choices do not fall within the normal range for a urinalysis.

3. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer the next dose when the patient has an empty stomach.
• B. Hold the next dose and contact the patient’s provider.
• C. Instruct the patient to take the next dose with a full glass of water.
• D. Request an order for an antacid to give along with the next dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:

• A. Be drying to nasal passages
• B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
• C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
• D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.

5. The client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure may have a low tolerance for exercise due to:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Increased blood viscosity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased blood flow. In clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure, decreased blood flow due to heart failure can result in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This reduced oxygen supply can lead to low exercise tolerance. Increased blood flow (Choice B) is not typically associated with reduced exercise tolerance in these clients. Decreased pain (Choice C) and increased blood viscosity (Choice D) are not the primary factors contributing to low exercise tolerance in this scenario.

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