HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication that:
- A. The tube is patent
- B. There is probably a kink in the tubing
- C. Suction should be added to the system
- D. The client is retaining airway secretions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The tube is patent.' When the fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration, it indicates that the chest tube is patent, allowing for proper drainage. Choice B is incorrect because a kink in the tubing would obstruct the flow of fluid, leading to abnormal fluctuations in the water seal chamber. Choice C is incorrect as adding suction to the system is not indicated based on the described finding. Choice D is incorrect as the rising and falling of fluid in the water seal chamber is not indicative of the client retaining airway secretions.
2. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?
- A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
- B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
- C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
- D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.
3. A client recovering from a cystoscopy is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Decrease in urine output
- B. Blood clots present in the urine
- C. Prescription for metformin
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a cystoscopy, the nurse should monitor urine output and promptly contact the provider if there is a decrease or absence of urine output. Additionally, the nurse should assess for blood in the urine. While some pink-tinged urine may be expected, the presence of gross bleeding or blood clots warrants immediate provider notification. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive sign and does not require urgent intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received contrast dye, which is not used in a cystoscopy. A burning sensation when urinating is a common post-procedure experience and does not necessitate contacting the provider. Therefore, choices A and B are the correct answers as they indicate potentially serious complications that require immediate attention, while choices C and D do not align with urgent concerns following a cystoscopy.
4. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?
- A. To lower blood pressure.
- B. To promote the absorption of glucose into cells.
- C. To increase blood glucose levels.
- D. To decrease blood glucose levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the absorption of glucose into cells. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect as insulin does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C is inaccurate as insulin works to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because insulin's primary role is to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.
5. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:
- A. Improvement in the client
- B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
- C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
- D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.
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