HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
- C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Keep the patient in a supine position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
3. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.
- A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
- B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
- C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
- D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.
4. The healthcare provider provides dietary instructions about iron-rich food to a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which food selection made by the client indicates a need for additional instructions?
- A. Liver
- B. Kidney beans
- C. Oranges
- D. Leafy green vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oranges are not a good source of iron, so selecting oranges indicates a need for additional instructions. Oranges are high in vitamin C, which can enhance iron absorption from other sources, but they are not rich in iron themselves. Liver, kidney beans, and leafy green vegetables are good sources of iron and would be beneficial for a client with iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
5. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urine retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.
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