HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
- C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Keep the patient in a supine position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.
2. The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?
- A. 10 units.
- B. 22 units.
- C. 32 units.
- D. 24 units.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct dose would be 32 units, which is the sum of 10 units of regular insulin and 22 units of NPH. It is essential to combine the doses of both types of insulin to ensure the client administers the correct total dose. Choices A and B represent the individual doses of regular and NPH insulin, respectively, not the combined total. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the sum of both insulin doses.
3. What is a priority goal for the diabetic client who is taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting from a viral illness or influenza?
- A. Ensuring adequate food intake.
- B. Managing personal health.
- C. Relieving pain.
- D. Increasing physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring adequate food intake is a priority goal for a diabetic client taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting due to a viral illness or influenza because maintaining proper nutrition is essential to prevent complications such as ketoacidosis. During illness, it is crucial for diabetic individuals to continue to consume appropriate amounts of food to maintain stable blood sugar levels and prevent hypoglycemia. Managing personal health (choice B) is important but not the priority in this situation. Relieving pain (choice C) may be necessary if present but is not the priority over ensuring food intake. Increasing physical activity (choice D) is not recommended during illness, especially when the individual is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
- B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
- C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
- D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.
5. The patient is receiving sulfadiazine. The healthcare provider knows that this patient’s daily fluid intake should be at least which amount?
- A. 1000 mL/day
- B. 1200 mL/day
- C. 2000 mL/day
- D. 2400 mL/day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sulfadiazine may lead to crystalluria, a condition where crystals form in the urine. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by ensuring urine is dilute enough to prevent crystal formation. The recommended daily fluid intake for a patient receiving sulfadiazine is at least 2000 mL/day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of fluid intake to prevent crystalluria in patients on sulfadiazine.
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