Nursing Elites

1. Blood is drawn from a client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level?

• A. 1.7 mg/dL
• B. 5.8 mg/dL
• C. 8.9 mg/dL
• D. 12.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range for uric acid is 4.5 to 8 mg/dL for males and 2.5 to 6.2 mg/dL for females. A uric acid level of 5.8 mg/dL falls within the normal range. Choices A, C, and D are outside the normal reference range, making them incorrect. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the typical uric acid levels in the blood.

2. After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
• B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
• C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
• D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.

3. The healthcare provider provides dietary instructions about iron-rich food to a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which food selection made by the client indicates a need for additional instructions?

• A. Liver
• B. Kidney beans
• C. Oranges
• D. Leafy green vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oranges are not a good source of iron, so selecting oranges indicates a need for additional instructions. Oranges are high in vitamin C, which can enhance iron absorption from other sources, but they are not rich in iron themselves. Liver, kidney beans, and leafy green vegetables are good sources of iron and would be beneficial for a client with iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.

5. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

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