Nursing Elites

1. A client recovering from extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for renal calculi has an ecchymotic area on the right lower back. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer fresh-frozen plasma.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the site.
• C. Place the client in the prone position.
• D. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, ecchymosis can occur due to bleeding into the tissues from the shock waves. Applying an ice pack helps reduce the extent and discomfort of bruising. Administering fresh-frozen plasma and obtaining coagulation test results are not necessary as ecchymosis after this procedure is common and does not indicate a bleeding disorder that requires immediate intervention. Placing the client in the prone position will not address the bleeding or bruising in this situation.

2. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate extremities on pillows
• B. Evaluate edema for pitting
• C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
• D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.

3. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

4. Which is a characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections?

• A. Sulfonamides are bactericidal.
• B. Sulfonamides are synthetic compounds.
• C. Sulfonamides have antifungal and antiviral properties.
• D. Sulfonamides increase bacterial synthesis of folic acid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections is that sulfonamides are synthetic compounds, not derived from biologic substances. Choice A is incorrect because sulfonamides are bacteriostatic, not bactericidal. Choice C is incorrect because sulfonamides do not have antifungal and antiviral properties. Choice D is incorrect because sulfonamides act by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid, not increasing it.

5. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
• B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
• C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
• D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.

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