Nursing Elites

1. A client recovering from extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for renal calculi has an ecchymotic area on the right lower back. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer fresh-frozen plasma.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the site.
• C. Place the client in the prone position.
• D. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, ecchymosis can occur due to bleeding into the tissues from the shock waves. Applying an ice pack helps reduce the extent and discomfort of bruising. Administering fresh-frozen plasma and obtaining coagulation test results are not necessary as ecchymosis after this procedure is common and does not indicate a bleeding disorder that requires immediate intervention. Placing the client in the prone position will not address the bleeding or bruising in this situation.

2. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to

• A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
• B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
• C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
• D. take these medications in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.

3. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Daily weight measurements.
• B. Monitoring intake and output.
• C. Assessing skin turgor.
• D. Checking for peripheral edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The nurse notes that the provider has ordered serum drug peak and trough levels. The nurse understands that these tests are necessary for which type of drugs?

• A. Drugs with a broad spectrum
• B. Drugs with a narrow spectrum
• C. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index
• D. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Medications with a narrow therapeutic index have a limited range between the therapeutic dose and a toxic dose. It is important to monitor these medications closely by evaluating regular serum peak and trough levels. Drugs with a narrow spectrum (Choice B) are antibiotics that target only a limited group of bacteria, not related to the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad spectrum (Choice A) cover a wide range of bacteria, but this characteristic does not determine the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index (Choice C) have a wide safety margin between therapeutic and toxic doses, so they typically do not require peak and trough level monitoring.

5. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 167 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 83 mL/hr
• D. 111 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

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