Nursing Elites

1. A young adult client, admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells). The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all the PRBCs have been transfused?

• A. 0.19
• B. 0.09
• C. 0.39
• D. 0.29

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The expected increase in hematocrit after transfusion is approximately 3% per unit of PRBCs. Since the client received 4 units, the expected increase would be 4 x 3% = 12%. Therefore, adding this to the pretransfusion hematocrit of 17% would result in an expected post-transfusion hematocrit of 29%. Choice A (0.19) is incorrect as it doesn't consider the incremental increase per unit of PRBCs. Choices B (0.09) and C (0.39) are also incorrect as they do not align with the expected increase in hematocrit following the transfusion of 4 units of PRBCs.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

3. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Smoking
• B. Asthma
• C. Allergies
• D. Chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

4. A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, 'The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure.' Which symptoms are most important to teach the client?

• A. Facial flushing.
• B. Fever.
• C. Pounding headache.
• D. Feelings of dizziness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Feelings of dizziness.' Feelings of dizziness may occur as a result of a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output, which can be an indication of pacemaker failure. Teaching the client to recognize symptoms of decreased cardiac output, like dizziness, is crucial for early detection of pacemaker malfunction. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to pacemaker failure and are not commonly associated with this condition. Facial flushing, fever, and pounding headache are not typical signs of pacemaker failure and are not directly related to cardiac output, making them less relevant for teaching the client about pacemaker failure.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

• A. Headaches
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Superinfection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.

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