Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic renal failure is being educated on dietary restrictions. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Bananas.
• B. Oranges.
• C. Rice.
• D. Apples.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, and clients with chronic renal failure are often advised to follow a low-potassium diet to prevent hyperkalemia. Oranges and apples are also high in potassium and should be avoided by clients with renal issues. Rice, on the other hand, is low in potassium and is generally considered safe for individuals with chronic renal failure to consume in moderation.

2. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics.
• B. Administering IV fluids.
• C. Administering antipyretics.
• D. Monitoring blood cultures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a crucial intervention in suspected sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is essential for guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but should be guided by blood culture results. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also essential to support hemodynamic stability in sepsis. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever but is not a priority compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my medication only when I have chest pain.
• B. I will follow a heart-healthy diet and exercise regularly.
• C. I will avoid smoking and limit alcohol intake.
• D. I will contact my doctor if I experience chest pain or shortness of breath.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement indicates a misunderstanding because medication for CAD should be taken as prescribed, not only when chest pain occurs.

4. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

5. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

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