HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?
- A. Fortified milk and cereals
- B. Citrus fruits and juices
- C. Green leafy vegetables
- D. Red meats and eggs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.
2. After a renal biopsy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?
- A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours
- B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood
- C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics
- D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a renal biopsy, it is essential to maintain bed rest and frequently assess the client's vital signs and the puncture site. The nurse should test the urine periodically for occult blood to detect any bleeding, which could be a complication of the procedure. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours is not necessary after a renal biopsy and could potentially lead to dehydration. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics is not a standard intervention post-renal biopsy unless contraindicated for a specific reason. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances is generally not recommended immediately after a renal biopsy due to the need for bed rest to prevent complications.
3. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
- B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
- C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
- D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.
4. In a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which of the following symptoms would be expected?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Coughing up blood.
- D. Cyanosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a common symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the risk of a pulmonary embolism. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. If a portion of the clot breaks loose and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath. Chest pain is more commonly associated with conditions like a heart attack or pulmonary embolism itself. Coughing up blood is a symptom more indicative of conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung cancer. Cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to poor oxygenation, can be seen in severe cases of pulmonary embolism but is not a typical symptom of DVT.
5. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
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