Nursing Elites

1. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?

• A. Iso-osmolar
• B. Hypo-osmolar
• C. Hyperosmolar
• D. Isotonic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.

2. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
• B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
• C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
• D. Give an antihypertensive medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.

3. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

4. A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
• B. High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure.
• C. Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion.
• D. Social isolation related to inability to communicate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client on a mechanical ventilator receiving vecuronium bromide is 'Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.' Vecuronium is a skeletal muscle relaxant that causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to the inability of the client to communicate effectively. This is a crucial nursing concern as it impacts the client's ability to express needs and participate in care. Option B 'High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure' is not the priority in this scenario as the client's condition is related to the effects of the medication and mechanical ventilation, not directly to increased intracranial pressure. Option C 'Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion' is important but not the priority over impaired communication. Option D 'Social isolation related to inability to communicate' is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this situation as it focuses more on psychosocial aspects rather than the immediate physiological concern of communication impairment.

5. The client has been receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications that is most likely to occur?

• A. Electrolyte imbalance
• B. Peritonitis
• C. Infection
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Peritonitis is the most likely complication to occur in clients receiving peritoneal dialysis due to the risk of infection. Peritonitis is a serious inflammation of the peritoneum lining the abdominal cavity, commonly caused by infection. While electrolyte imbalance and hyperglycemia are possible complications in some cases, peritonitis poses a more immediate and severe threat to the client's health. Infection is a general term that can encompass peritonitis but is not as specific as directly identifying peritonitis as the primary concern in this scenario.

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