Nursing Elites

1. The patient weighs 75 kg and is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 50 mL/hour, having consumed 100 mL orally in the past 24 hours. What action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the provider to ask about increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour.
• B. Discuss with the provider the need to increase the IV rate to 150 mL/hour.
• C. Encourage the patient to drink more water so the IV can be discontinued.
• D. Instruct the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The recommended daily fluid intake for adults is 30 to 40 mL/kg/day. For a patient weighing 75 kg, the minimum intake should be 2250 mL/day. The patient is currently receiving 1200 mL IV and 100 mL orally, totaling 1300 mL. Increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour would provide a total of 2160 mL, which could meet the patient's needs if oral intake continues. Option B suggests increasing the IV rate to 150 mL/hour, resulting in an excessive fluid intake of 3600 mL/day, surpassing the recommended amount. Option C, encouraging increased fluid intake, is not recommended as the patient is already struggling with fluid intake. Option D, instructing the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours, would still fall short of the required fluid intake of 2250 mL/day.

2. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client?

• A. Administering a laxative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest
• D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After CT scanning with contrast medium, the client does not require special restrictions or interventions. Encouraging fluid intake is important to help flush out the contrast dye and prevent dehydration. Administering a laxative (Choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated after CT with contrast. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice after CT with contrast.

3. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:

• A. Improvement in the client
• B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
• C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
• D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.

4. In a patient with pneumonia, what is the primary goal of treatment?

• A. Reducing inflammation.
• B. Eliminating the infection.
• C. Reducing pain.
• D. Preventing complications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of treating pneumonia is to eliminate the infection. Antibiotics are commonly used to target the specific pathogen causing pneumonia. While reducing inflammation and preventing complications are important aspects of treatment, the key focus initially is on eradicating the infectious agent to improve the patient's condition and prevent further spread of the infection.

5. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

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