Nursing Elites

1. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

2. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

• A. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
• B. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
• C. Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain
• D. Marked weight loss and appetite over the last 3 to 4 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

3. The patient is receiving sulfadiazine. The healthcare provider knows that this patient’s daily fluid intake should be at least which amount?

• A. 1000 mL/day
• B. 1200 mL/day
• C. 2000 mL/day
• D. 2400 mL/day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sulfadiazine may lead to crystalluria, a condition where crystals form in the urine. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by ensuring urine is dilute enough to prevent crystal formation. The recommended daily fluid intake for a patient receiving sulfadiazine is at least 2000 mL/day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of fluid intake to prevent crystalluria in patients on sulfadiazine.

4. A client with partial thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Obtain supplies to re-dress the burn area.
• B. Verify the client's signed consent form.
• C. Give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent.
• D. Perform active range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before transporting the client for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area, the nurse should give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent. This intervention is essential to manage pain effectively during the debridement process. Obtaining supplies to re-dress the burn area (Choice A) is important but not as immediate as providing pain relief. Verifying the client's signed consent form (Choice B) is necessary for procedures but does not address the client's immediate pain needs. Performing active range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is not indicated before whirlpool therapy for debridement of burns and may cause further discomfort to the client.

5. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Flank pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Bloody and cloudy urine
• D. Enlarged abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.

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