alteplase recombinant or tissue plasminogen activator t pa a thrombolytic enzyme is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial in
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

2. A client has just been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). What should the nurse tell the client about the procedure? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the ERCP procedure takes about 1 hour to complete. Informed consent is required before the procedure. Premedication for sedation may be necessary as sedation is commonly used during ERCP to keep the client comfortable. Food and fluids are withheld before the procedure to prevent aspiration and ensure a clear view during the procedure. Position changes may be necessary to facilitate the passage of the tube.

3. After educating a client with stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Limiting fluids can worsen stress incontinence by concentrating urine and irritating tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Adequate hydration is important to maintain bladder health and function. Choices B and C are correct as avoiding alcoholic and caffeinated beverages can help reduce bladder irritation. Choice D is also correct as losing about 10% of body weight can help reduce intra-abdominal pressure, which is beneficial in managing stress incontinence.

4. A client's urinalysis results show a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the client has a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L, indicating dehydration, is to encourage the client to drink more fluids. Dehydration can lead to elevated urine osmolality, and increasing fluid intake can help rehydrate the client. A low-sodium diet is not the priority in this scenario as it would not directly address the dehydration indicated by the high urine osmolality. Administering an intravenous diuretic would further concentrate the urine, exacerbating the dehydration. Obtaining a suction device and implementing seizure precautions are not indicated based on the client's urine osmolality results and would not address the underlying issue of dehydration.

5. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.

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