HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. The nurse is administering intravenous fluids to a dehydrated patient. On the second day of care, the patient's weight has increased by 2.25 pounds. The nurse would expect that the patient's fluid intake has
- A. equaled urine output.
- B. exceeded urine output by 1 L.
- C. exceeded urine output by 2.5 L.
- D. exceeded urine output by 3 L.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg, or approximately 2.2 to 2.5 lb, is generally equivalent to 1 liter (L) of fluid retained by the body. In this case, the patient's weight gain of 2.25 pounds suggests an excess fluid retention of approximately 1 liter, indicating that the patient's fluid intake has exceeded urine output by 1 liter. Choices C and D are incorrect as they overestimate the fluid excess based on the patient's weight gain. Choice A is incorrect as it implies an exact balance between fluid intake and urine output, which is not reflected in the given weight increase.
2. A young female client prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for a urinary tract infection is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Use a second form of birth control while taking this medication.
- B. You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this medication.
- C. You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this medication.
- D. Watch for blood in your urine while taking this drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to use a second form of birth control while taking amoxicillin. Penicillin, like amoxicillin, may reduce the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives, making it important to use additional contraceptive measures. The incorrect choices are B, C, and D. Increased menstrual bleeding, irregular heartbeat, or blood in the urine are not common side effects associated with amoxicillin use for a urinary tract infection.
3. A nursing assistant is measuring the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client while a nurse observes. Which action on the part of the assistant would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply.
- A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes
- B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level
- C. Using a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles less than 80% of the limb
- D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup of coffee
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To ensure accurate blood pressure (BP) measurement, the cuff used should have a rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb being measured. This ensures proper compression and accurate readings. Choices A and B are correct practices as it is recommended to measure BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes and to have the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level. Choice D is also a correct reason for intervention as the client should not have consumed caffeine or smoked tobacco within 30 minutes before BP measurement, as it can affect the accuracy of the reading.
4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following lab values would be expected?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low hemoglobin levels.
- C. Elevated potassium levels.
- D. Low sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, elevated creatinine levels are expected due to impaired kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product that is typically filtered out by the kidneys. With kidney disease, the clearance of creatinine is reduced, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Low hemoglobin levels (choice B) may be seen in chronic kidney disease due to decreased production of erythropoietin. However, elevated potassium levels (choice C) and low sodium levels (choice D) are more commonly associated with kidney dysfunction but are not as specific indicators of chronic kidney disease as elevated creatinine levels.
5. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?
- A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
- B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
- C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
- D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.
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