HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. The nurse is administering intravenous fluids to a dehydrated patient. On the second day of care, the patient's weight has increased by 2.25 pounds. The nurse would expect that the patient's fluid intake has
- A. equaled urine output.
- B. exceeded urine output by 1 L.
- C. exceeded urine output by 2.5 L.
- D. exceeded urine output by 3 L.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg, or approximately 2.2 to 2.5 lb, is generally equivalent to 1 liter (L) of fluid retained by the body. In this case, the patient's weight gain of 2.25 pounds suggests an excess fluid retention of approximately 1 liter, indicating that the patient's fluid intake has exceeded urine output by 1 liter. Choices C and D are incorrect as they overestimate the fluid excess based on the patient's weight gain. Choice A is incorrect as it implies an exact balance between fluid intake and urine output, which is not reflected in the given weight increase.
2. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
- B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
- D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.
3. What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?
- A. Weigh weekly.
- B. Report symptoms of secondary Candidiasis.
- C. Use daily reminders to take immunosuppressants.
- D. Stop cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a kidney transplant, it is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed immunosuppressive therapy to prevent organ rejection. The client must take medications like corticosteroids and azathioprine (Imuran) regularly for the rest of their life. Using daily reminders is essential to ensure compliance with the medication regimen, as missing doses can increase the risk of organ rejection. Weighing weekly, reporting symptoms of secondary Candidiasis, and stopping cigarette smoking are important aspects of post-transplant care but may not be as critical as ensuring proper intake of immunosuppressants to prevent rejection.
4. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?
- A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
- B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
- C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
- D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.
5. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
- B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
- C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
- D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
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