HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. After a myocardial infarction, why is the hospitalized client taught to move the legs while resting in bed?
- A. Prepare the client for ambulation.
- B. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
- C. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
- D. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Moving the legs helps prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation by promoting venous return in clients on bed rest. This prevents stasis and clot formation in the lower extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary goal of moving the legs is to prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation, rather than preparing for ambulation, promoting elimination, or decreasing pressure ulcer formation. Ambulation preparation involves different exercises, urinary and intestinal elimination are not directly related to leg movements, and pressure ulcer prevention is more related to repositioning and skin care.
2. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Infection.
- D. Fever.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.
3. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?
- A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
- B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
- C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
- D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had severe vomiting. The patient’s serum sodium level is 130 mEq/L. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order which treatment?
- A. Diuretic therapy
- B. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline
- C. Intravenous normal saline 0.9%
- D. Oral sodium supplements
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has hyponatremia with a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. For a serum sodium level between 125 and 135 mEq/L, the appropriate treatment is intravenous normal saline 0.9%. Normal saline helps to increase the sodium content in the vascular fluid. Diuretic therapy would exacerbate sodium and fluid depletion, which is not suitable for a patient already dehydrated from severe vomiting. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline is typically reserved for severe hyponatremia with a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L. Oral sodium supplements are not feasible in this case as the patient is vomiting and may not be able to tolerate oral intake easily.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
- A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
- D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.
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