Nursing Elites

1. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

2. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
• C. A & B
• D. Amber, odorless urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.

3. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

4. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

5. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?

• A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
• B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
• C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
• D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.

Similar Questions