Nursing Elites

1. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

2. A client with acute kidney injury has a blood pressure of 76/55 mm Hg. The health care provider ordered 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over 1 hour to maintain perfusion. The client is starting to develop shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP).
• B. Ask for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.
• C. Take the client’s pulse.
• D. Slow down the normal saline infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client may be developing fluid overload and respiratory distress due to the rapid normal saline infusion. The priority action is to slow down the infusion to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential fluid overload. While calculating the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important to assess perfusion, addressing the immediate respiratory distress takes precedence. Inserting a pulmonary artery catheter would provide detailed hemodynamic information but is not the initial step in managing acute respiratory distress. Monitoring vital signs, including the client's pulse, is crucial after adjusting the intravenous infusion to ensure a safe response to the intervention.

3. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
• B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
• C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypotension.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypercalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.

5. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:

• A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
• B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
• C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
• D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.

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