Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypocalcemia.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects? Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) is a medication used to lower phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure. It works by binding with dietary phosphate and preventing its absorption. However, this can lead to an excess of calcium in the blood, causing hypercalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of elevated calcium levels, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as calcium acetate does not typically cause hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia, or hypoglycemia.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is being treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?

• A. Hyponatremia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, which is then eliminated through the feces. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is not associated with causing hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypocalcemia.

3. A client with elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) triggers the release of this hormone due to which disorder?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Dehydration
• C. Renal failure
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases tubular permeability to water, causing more water absorption into the capillaries. ADH is released in response to a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, such as in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema do not typically lead to the release of ADH. Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition, renal failure affects kidney function, and edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues, none of which directly stimulate the release of ADH.

4. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
• B. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
• C. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
• D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.

5. A client with stress incontinence is being taught about pelvic muscle exercises. Which statements should be included by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Starting and stopping the urine stream involves using pelvic muscles.
• B. Tighten pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relax for a slow count of 10.
• C. Pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions: lying down, sitting up, and standing.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching a client with stress incontinence about pelvic muscle exercises are that starting and stopping the urine stream involve using pelvic muscles and that tightening pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relaxing for a slow count of 10 can help strengthen them. It is essential to highlight that pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions, including lying down, sitting up, and standing. This variety in positions helps engage the muscles effectively. Performing these exercises 15 times in each position can aid in strengthening the pelvic floor muscles. Consistent exercise over several weeks typically leads to improved control over urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect because pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in different positions and are not limited to sitting upright with feet on the floor.

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