Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypocalcemia.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects? Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) is a medication used to lower phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure. It works by binding with dietary phosphate and preventing its absorption. However, this can lead to an excess of calcium in the blood, causing hypercalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of elevated calcium levels, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as calcium acetate does not typically cause hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia, or hypoglycemia.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:

• A. Be drying to nasal passages
• B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
• C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
• D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.

3. A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Call for the physician.
• B. Start an IV infusion.
• C. Obtain a portable chest radiograph.
• D. Draw blood for laboratory studies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The nurse notes that the provider has ordered serum drug peak and trough levels. The nurse understands that these tests are necessary for which type of drugs?

• A. Drugs with a broad spectrum
• B. Drugs with a narrow spectrum
• C. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index
• D. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Medications with a narrow therapeutic index have a limited range between the therapeutic dose and a toxic dose. It is important to monitor these medications closely by evaluating regular serum peak and trough levels. Drugs with a narrow spectrum (Choice B) are antibiotics that target only a limited group of bacteria, not related to the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad spectrum (Choice A) cover a wide range of bacteria, but this characteristic does not determine the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index (Choice C) have a wide safety margin between therapeutic and toxic doses, so they typically do not require peak and trough level monitoring.

5. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

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