in a patient with cirrhosis which of the following lab results is most concerning
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HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

3. A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.

4. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vision problems are a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of the optic nerve. This can lead to issues such as optic neuritis, blurred vision, double vision, or even total vision loss. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a primary symptom of MS but can occur as a secondary effect of decreased mobility. Severe pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of MS, though some individuals may experience pain related to muscle spasms or other factors. Hearing loss (Choice D) is not commonly associated with MS unless there is an unrelated concurrent condition affecting the auditory system.

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