HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:
- A. Competent venous valves.
 - B. Decreased blood volume.
 - C. Increase in muscular activity.
 - D. Increased venous pressure.
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.
2. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
 - B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
 - C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
 - D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.
3. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?
- A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
 - B. What medications are you taking?
 - C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
 - D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.
4. A client in the emergency department is severely dehydrated and is prescribed 3 L of intravenous fluid over 6 hours. At what rate (mL/hr) should the nurse set the intravenous pump to infuse the fluids? (Record your answer using a whole number.)
- A. 500 mL/hr
 - B. 400 mL/hr
 - C. 550 mL/hr
 - D. 600 mL/hr
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate of the intravenous pump, divide the total volume of fluid (3 L = 3000 mL) by the total time in hours (6 hours), which equals 500 mL/hr. The correct answer is A. Choice B (400 mL/hr) is incorrect as it would result in a slower infusion rate. Choice C (550 mL/hr) and Choice D (600 mL/hr) are incorrect as they would result in a faster infusion rate, exceeding the prescribed amount of fluid to be infused over 6 hours.
5. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
 - B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
 - C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
 - D. Give an antihypertensive medication.
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
                  
$69.99/ 30 days
                
- 5,000 Questions with answers
 - All HESI courses Coverage
 - 30 days access
 
HESI RN Premium
                  
$149.99/ 90 days
                
- 5,000 Questions with answers
 - All HESI courses Coverage
 - 30 days access