Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is most important for assessing when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Daily weight
• D. Serum sodium levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most crucial parameter to assess when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis because it directly reflects fluid balance. Peritoneal dialysis involves the removal of excess fluid and waste products from the body. Monitoring daily weight enables the healthcare provider to track changes in fluid status, ensuring that the dialysis treatment is effective. While serum potassium levels, blood pressure, and serum sodium levels are important parameters to monitor in patients undergoing dialysis, they are not as directly indicative of the immediate effects of peritoneal dialysis on fluid balance as daily weight.

2. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
• B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
• C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Polyuria and excessive thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.

3. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

4. A client with stress incontinence is being taught about pelvic muscle exercises. Which statements should be included by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Starting and stopping the urine stream involves using pelvic muscles.
• B. Tighten pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relax for a slow count of 10.
• C. Pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions: lying down, sitting up, and standing.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching a client with stress incontinence about pelvic muscle exercises are that starting and stopping the urine stream involve using pelvic muscles and that tightening pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relaxing for a slow count of 10 can help strengthen them. It is essential to highlight that pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions, including lying down, sitting up, and standing. This variety in positions helps engage the muscles effectively. Performing these exercises 15 times in each position can aid in strengthening the pelvic floor muscles. Consistent exercise over several weeks typically leads to improved control over urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect because pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in different positions and are not limited to sitting upright with feet on the floor.

5. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

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