a client is receiving a continuous iv infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis the clients activated partial thromboplastin time
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023

1. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

2. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.

3. A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client presents with significant weight loss, poor hygiene, and inadequate clothing, which are concerning signs of self-neglect. Before taking action, it is crucial for the nurse to collect more data to determine the root cause of these issues. Jumping to conclusions or immediately involving social services without a thorough assessment could potentially harm the client or strain relationships. Discussing the need for mental health counseling with the daughter or simply advising the client to take better care of herself may not address the underlying problem of self-neglect. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is for the nurse to collect further data to make an informed decision before taking the next steps.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily is being taught by a nurse about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for insulin absorption in a client who jogs. When a client is involved in physical activity like jogging, the abdomen is preferred as it provides more consistent absorption compared to the arms or legs, which can have altered absorption rates due to increased blood flow during exercise. The iliac crest is not a common site for insulin injections and may not provide optimal absorption rates compared to the abdomen.

5. A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the education about urge incontinence and stress incontinence is choice B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter, leading to the inability to tighten the urethra sufficiently to overcome increased detrusor pressure. This condition is common after childbirth when pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened. Urge incontinence, on the other hand, is characterized by the inability to suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle. It is often associated with abnormal detrusor contractions, which can be due to neurological abnormalities rather than post-void residual volume. Choice A is incorrect because urge incontinence is not defined by post-void residual volume. Choice C is incorrect as stress incontinence is not usually linked to dementia. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not a management strategy for urge incontinence.

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