Nursing Elites

1. The client has been receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications that is most likely to occur?

• A. Electrolyte imbalance
• B. Peritonitis
• C. Infection
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Peritonitis is the most likely complication to occur in clients receiving peritoneal dialysis due to the risk of infection. Peritonitis is a serious inflammation of the peritoneum lining the abdominal cavity, commonly caused by infection. While electrolyte imbalance and hyperglycemia are possible complications in some cases, peritonitis poses a more immediate and severe threat to the client's health. Infection is a general term that can encompass peritonitis but is not as specific as directly identifying peritonitis as the primary concern in this scenario.

2. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

• A. Liquids as desired.
• B. Small, easily digested meals.
• C. Three regular meals per day.
• D. Nothing by mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Increased lung compliance.
• B. Decreased lung elasticity.
• C. Increased respiratory rate.
• D. Increased lung expansion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.

4. In a patient with diabetes mellitus, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polydipsia.
• B. Polyuria.
• C. Sweating.
• D. Dry skin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, which can cause sweating as a response to the perceived danger. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are actually more commonly associated with hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Dry skin is not typically a sign of hypoglycemia.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

• A. a decreased dose of TMP-SMX.
• B. a different antibiotic.
• C. an increased dose of warfarin.
• D. coagulation studies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

Similar Questions