a nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1018 which action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at risk for nephrotoxicity due to medications. Which of the following serum creatinine results does the healthcare professional document as normal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level typically ranges from 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. A result of 1.0 mg/dL falls within this normal range. A serum creatinine level of 0.2 mg/dL is abnormally low and may indicate decreased muscle mass or malnutrition. On the other hand, results of 2.8 mg/dL and 3.9 mg/dL are elevated, signifying impaired kidney function and potential nephrotoxicity from medications.

3. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

4. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

5. After educating a client with stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Limiting fluids can worsen stress incontinence by concentrating urine and irritating tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Adequate hydration is important to maintain bladder health and function. Choices B and C are correct as avoiding alcoholic and caffeinated beverages can help reduce bladder irritation. Choice D is also correct as losing about 10% of body weight can help reduce intra-abdominal pressure, which is beneficial in managing stress incontinence.

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